Knowing the Words, but not the Music.
Jcecil3 - who is a frequent commenter on other Catholic blogs - has a single topic, single post blog on
Theological Reflections on Homosexuality. The post pulls together many of the arguments that I have seen which seek to argue that this Biblical passage or that Biblical proof-text against homosexual practices really doesn't condemn homosexual practices. The goal of Jcecil's exegesis is to find a place for homosexual practices and active practitioner's of homosexuality at the table of Christian morality. In order to achieve this goal, Jcecil's strategy is to examine the texts typically offered as condemnatory of homosexuality and to argue that each such text is misunderstood or susceptible of an interpretation congenial to the modern understanding of the gay lifestyle.(1)
I think that Jcecil's individual arguments may in some cases be tenable. My understanding of reading of Genesis 19 has always been that the sin of Sodom involved inhospitality more than homosexuality. For example, notwithstanding the fact that the men of Sodom appeared to have "intimacies" with the Lot's guests, the fact that Lot attempted to assuage the men of Sodom with his daughters (Genesis 19:8) suggests that the men of Sodom were not the models of fixed, immutable homosexuals that are offered as the basis for changing social policy today.
The rest of the examples sound like "special pleading" to me. Certain words could mean one thing. They could mean another. Perhaps one can restrict the meaning of certain terms to a particular kind of activity and then define "true homosexual" conduct outside of that definition. For the sake of argument, I'll grant Jcecil's exegesis.
All that said, Jcecil's project is ultimately unsatisfying for several reasons.
First, where is the proof-text in favor of homosexual activity? One can spend a lot of effort pondering the meaning of malakoi versus arsenokoites, but where is the positive example of homosexuals engaging in homosexual activity in the text? The closest I can think of is David and Jonathon, but the circumlocutions and ambiguities suggest that maybe homosexuality was not on the list of permitted activities in ancient Israel. Likewise,
attempts to depict Jesus as engaging in, or approving, of homosexual relationships evidence more about the agenda of the proponents of such a reading than about the text itself.
Second, what about the texts concerning the teleological end of human sexual activity? Genesis quickly develops the following: "God created man in His image. In the image of God, He created them. Male and female He created them. Then God blessed them and said to them. "Be fruitful and multiply; fill the earth and subdue it." ...For this reason a man leaves his father and mother, and clings to his wife, and the two become one flesh." (Genesis 1: 27-28; 2:24.)
Now, note the absence of circumlocutions and ambiguities here. The model of human sexuality is viewed from the start as having the final cause of procreation, which plainly in the text - and in the natural world - involves a male and a female.
Jesus does not weaken the importance of marriage as His pronouncement on divorce attests.
Third, what about the texts on chastity and virginity? The Old and New Testament are replete with such passages which compare chastity as superior to marriage in terms of the commitment of the individual to God.
One reading of these texts, therefore, is that sexual activities were to be confined within marriage, marriage is an institution whose final cause is procreation, and that outside of marriage, morality requires chastity. I think that reading fits the relevant text better than one which purports to find a casual acceptance of homosexual activity, which by definition does not involve procreation or marriage.
What then to do about problematic social institutions, such as concubinage and
adelphopoiesis?
Adelphopoiesis is defined as Jcecil as a rite "whereby two people of the same gender were joined in an inddissoluble bond of love making them eternal siblings." The rite appears to exist and has been seized upon by those with a pro-gay agenda as constituting gay marriage in the early years of the church. The rite appears to exist,
albeit according to a woman who went through the ceremony, the rite is anyting but a gay marriage. (Unless one wants to focus on the casual liason and essential meaninglessness of the ceremony, which is not entirely a cheap shot based upon sociological data.)
Concubinage strikes me as a more difficult proposition for my thesis that sexual relationships were understood as being properly confined within marriage. Concubinage existed well into the Christian era. St. Augustine famously had a concubine with whom he had a son. When St. Augustine was contemplating a political marriage, he put away the unnamed concubine, which admittedly cost him great emotional distress.
On the concubine issue I will largely punt by saying that Christian ethics evolved over time as individuals like Augustine worked out the implications of Christian morality in a Pagan world. Further, note that Augustine's great nemesis was not too much sex - although he notoriously claimed that it was. The demon Augustine fought before his conversion was Manichaenism, which argued that sex between male and female was wrong because it could lead to children, which was an evil because bits of God would then be trapped in human flesh. Augustine's response was many-fold. First, he argued against the idea that creation - flesh - was evil. Second, he argued that spirit was not trapped in the flesh as if flesh were evil and good only to be discarded. Augustine, in fact, reminded us that our resurrections will include our bodies.
Third, the prolific Augustine wrote on
The Good of Marriage for the purpose describing the three goods that flow from marriage - children, mutual faith and sacrament - which converge in the one comprehensive good of marriage. In other words, notwithstanding the fact that Augustine clearly had a concubine, he apparently saw sacramentl value in marriage.
So, I'll punt on concubinage, except to say that the argument in favor of homosexual - non-procrative - sexual relationships would have been strengthened in an alternative universe where the Manichees prevailed. In that history, heterosexual relationships would have been viewed with disdain because of their propensity for reproduction. It seems likely, then, that homosexual relationships would have become normalized and preferred.
Which is the final reason why I think that readings of the Bible which attempt to argue that there was a time when homosexuality was historically tolerated, or claims that there was a time when homosexual marriage was an option, are pure myth-making. Any such practice would have been seen as clearly Manichian and would never have been anything other than a heretical diversion.
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1. I am going to ignore the axiomatic acceptance of the notion that homosexuality has been scientifically proven to be a fixed and immutable characteristic determined by some presumable genetic characteristic. I find such notion to be problemmatic in the extreme. Proponents of such a view are often the first to deny strenuously that intelligence, criminality or anti-social characteristics could ever be genetically determined, and, in fact, outside of XYY genes, no one has purported to locate these personal characteristics in anyone's geno or phenotype. The objection to such latter views are quite properly viewed as being fraught with political implications. Further, pace Thomas Kuhn, we have to be skeptical of "scientific proofs" that so neatly favor ideology.